1 Timothy 2
Is Paul a "misogynist" for making such a statement, or was he upholding God's Law? If feminists, jews, "liberals", and other ignorant people had their way, they would dismiss him as a "misogynist", but Christians have the duty and the power to grasp how this establishes order in Christian societies.
Is there some misunderstanding about what this means? Here is the original King James translation with Strong's Concordance numbers to help clarify any possible misunderstandings:
Note that the English word "silence" was translated from the Greek word "hesuchia":
Webster also translates this word as "silence":
"Usurp authority" over a man was translated from the Greek word "authenteo":
There can be no doubt that this Scripture prohibits women from having authority over men, but it's been argued by feminists and other ignorant people that this applies only to authority in a church. If we look at the previous portion of this Scripture, then we see that the reference is to "every place":
It has also been argued that modern churches don't necessarily follow this Scripture closely, which is probably true, which is fait accompli that they aren't operating within the principles of the Holy Bible and God's Law. Have "times changed" so much that the Holy Bible no longer applies to modern churches--or is the failure of the church to live by the Holy Bible the reason for these "changing times"? The simple fact that people argue that the church doesn't live by the Holy Bible is proof enough that it's the latter--if they lived by the Holy Bible, there would be no misunderstanding and thus no need for any exegesis of this Chapter of the Holy Bible.
Here is a comparison of all the various translations of 1 Timothy 2:11:
(KJV)Let the woman learn in silence with all subjection.
(KJV+)Let3129, 0 the woman1135 learn3129 in1722 silence2271 with1722 all3956 subjection5292.
(LITV)Let a woman learn in silence, in all subjection.
(MKJV)Let the woman learn in silence with all subjection.
(NAB)A woman must receive instruction silently and under complete control.
(WEB)Let a woman learn in quietness with all subjection.
(Webster)Let the woman learn in silence with all subjection.
(WNT)A woman should quietly learn from others with entire submissiveness.
(YLT)Let a woman in quietness learn in all subjection,
There is no conflict in the view of those who interpreted this Scripture. It has also been argued by "liberals", et. al., that the word "man" actually refers only to husbands, so let's examine 1 Timothy 2:12 more closely:
(KJV)But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence.
(KJV+)But1161 I suffer2010 not3756 a woman1135 to teach1321, nor3761 to usurp authority831 over the man435, but235 to be1511 in1722 silence2271.
(LITV)And I do not allow a woman to teach nor to exercise authority over a man, but to be in silence.
(MKJV)But I do not allow a woman to teach, or to exercise authority over a man, but to be in silence.
(NAB)I do not permit a woman to teach or to have authority over a man. She must be quiet.
(SRV)Porque no permito � la mujer ense������ar, ni tomar autoridad sobre el hombre, sino estar en silencio.
(WEB)But I don't permit a woman to teach, nor to exercise authority over a man, but to be in quietness.
(Webster)But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence.
(WNT)I do not permit a woman to teach, nor have authority over a man, but she must remain silent.
(YLT)and a woman I do not suffer to teach, nor to rule a husband, but to be in quietness,
Only one translator suggests that the Greek word "aner" should be translated as husband, but there is no evidence in the rest of this Scripture that this reference was only to husbands and wives.
"I have only been sent to the lost sheep of the house of Israel," He replied, Matthew 15:24