It was the LORD who begat both Isaac and Jacob
There's only one person in the entire Holy Bible who God refers to as "my firstborn", and it's not Adam, Noah, Moses, David, Solomon, nor even Jesus:
And thou shalt say unto Pharaoh, Thus saith the LORD, Israel is my son, even my firstborn: And I say unto thee, Let my son go, that he may serve me: and if thou refuse to let him go, behold, I will slay thy son, thy firstborn, Exodus 4:22:23
Is the above Verse what Jesus was quoting when He said the following:
John 3:16For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.
"My firstborn" is Jacob who "the LORD" renamed to Israel, and whose descendants are the Israelites of the Twelve Tribes of Israel, consisting of the House of Judah and the House of Israel.
First of all, the God of
Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob is NOT the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Esau—because as
"liberals" infer, He would NOT create Esau just so He could HATE him.
Second of all, the “g-d” [as
the jews who’re descendants of Esau spell it] isn’t even the “god” which GOD
told us NEVER to put before Him [does “You
shall have no other gods before me”
ring a bell for us these days?]
Third of all, the “LORD God”
[read: Yehovah Elohim] who FORMED the second Adam in Genesis 2:7 is NOT the God
of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob who *begat* Isaac and Jacob.
Fourth of all, the “LORD
God” who FORMED the second Adam is NOT the “God” [Elohim] who CREATED the fist
Adam in Genesis 1:27, NOR is He the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, NOR is He
the “g-d” of Esau
Fifth of all [now we’re
getting into African territory] the “God” [Elohim] who MADE niggers [behemah] in
Genesis 1:25 is NOT the “God” [Elohim] who CREATED the fist Adam in Genesis
1:27, is NOT the same God who FORMED the second Adam in Genesis 2:7, NOR is He
the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob who BEGAT Isaac and Jacob, NOR is He the
“g-d” of Esau.
In ALL of
Scripture, there’s only ONE man who *OUR God* called “My Firstborn Son”,
and that’s Jacob who "liberals" are so far removed from that they’re
absolutely correct that to they and theirs “God
doesn't exist” !
With as many people as there were on the Earth at the time "the LORD" impregnated Rebekah, Isaac's wife and Jacob's surrogate mother, how could "the LORD" consider Jacob to be "my firstborn"? Weren't all the Adamites whom God commanded the Israelites to slay, to "leave alive nothing that breatheth", to "make no covenant with", to not marry their daughters nor give their sons to, also descendants, creations, or sons of "the LORD"? Not if we're reading Exodus 4:22 correctly, they're not. This would mean that "God" [Elohiym, #430] who "created" the first man Adam in Genesis 1:25, and "the LORD God" [Yehovah #3068 and Elohiym #430] who "formed" the last man Adam in Genesis 2:7 are not the same as "the LORD" [Yehovah #3068] who claims to be the genetic father of Jacob.
So Israelites were not Adamites, they were a new creation both through Isaac and Jacob, which explains why the following two verses refer to "sons of Adam" and "seed of Adam" as separate and distinct people from the "ben Israel" [read: sons of Israel]:
Deuteronomy 32:8 When the most High divided to the nations their inheritance, when he separated the sons of Adam, he set the bounds of the people according to the number of the children of Israel.
Behold, the days come, saith the LORD, that I will sow the house of Israel and the house of Judah with the seed of man, and with the seed of beast.
It would have been very easy to simply insert the Hebrew word "sheniy" [#8145], which means "other", in front of "sons of Adam" in Deuteronomy 32:8 and in front of "seed of Adam" in Jeremiah 31:27, but this word is conspicuously absent in both verses. This is far too important a distinction to attribute to an oversight by the finger of God, Jeremiah, the translators, or even the church. This word is missing on purpose, because the Israelites are not Adamites [neither sons of Adam nor seed of Adam].
But what about Rebekah, Jacob's mother, being a Syrian?:
We know that the Israelite lineage is traced through the father, not the mother, but we also know that Abraham was very distraught about the possibility of his sons and grandsons marrying Canaanite women:
Syrians were pure genetic descendants of Adam, but Canaanites were half-breed descendants of the relationship between Noah's wife, who must not have been of the Adamic race, and Canaan:
So where it's no longer acceptable for an Israelite to marry an Adamite, "the LORD" did accept a Syrian to be a surrogate mother for Jacob (and Esau).
While we think of all descendants of Jacob as "Israelites", it was Jesus who reminded us that "the LORD", Jacob, He Himself, and all Israelites, are all identified by one single Greek word: "pneuma". The unfortunate translation of this word into the English word "spirit" has caused unlimited confusion because of its association with ghosts, frame of mind, attitude, esprit de corps, and something that lives after us when the body dies. Furthermore, "pneuma" may also have been used in reference to things other than this genetic seed line in the New Testament. So when you see the English words "spirit" and "ghost" in the New Testament, you need to double check the context to be sure that it's not a reference to "the LORD"'s progeny.
Entire religions have been built on top of a faulty interpretation of what Jesus meant when He said:
Judeochristian churches have promoted the notion that "spirit" and "flesh" are two sides of one Israelite, and that it's only the "spiritual" side which will "quickeneth" [read: be given life], and that the flesh side will die. But Jesus clarifies exactly who spirit and flesh are in the following verse:
It's Paul'sallegory which reminds us that it's descendants of Ishmael who are "begotten of the flesh" and descendants of Jacob who are "begotten of the spirit", proof that Jesus was merely stating the obvious: only Israelites are heirs to the everlasting covenant God made with Abraham through Jacob [given life], and Ishmaelites [and allegorically, all other non-Israelites] are not.
To further confuse matters, Paul does use this same Greek word "sarx" from which "flesh" was translated to above to refer to his fellow Israelites:
Obviously this is exactly the opposite of the meaning Paul developed in his allegory: one context refers to all non-Israelites, the other refers only to Israelites. But there is not a third meaning of "sarx" nor a second meaning of "phneuma" which refer to the state of mind of Israelites