Israel in the New Testament
- Part 1
Israel in The New Testament: It is impossible to truly understand
the Bible; or any part of it, without understanding that the Anglo-Saxon,
Germanic, Scandinavian and kindred peoples of the world today are the Israel
of the Bible.
The Bible speaks always and only to Israel; and to claim its benefits
for yourself, you must start by putting yourself in the ranks of Israel.
Even the major Judeo-Christian churches show some dim awareness of this
fact, although they will not admit it. For example, the Episcopal Church
won't admit that we are Israel; but read their Book of Common Prayer: throughout,
it speaks always from the standpoint of Israel.
To get out of the embarrassment of this inconsistency, most Judeo-Christian
churches teach substantially this:
"Although God's promises to Israel were absolute and
unconditional, God welshed on those promises, and has given them to the
Although they don't express this quite so frankly. If their doctrine
were true, they wouldn't have much of a religion; if Israel couldn't trust
God's Word, who else could? But it is Not true; God never welshed on a
promise; every promise He ever made to Israel, He has fulfilled and is
today fulfilling, to Israel and to no-one else.
Then the Judeo-Christian churches say,
"Well, we are only Gentiles; but we have become spiritual Israel."
Now that is a most remarkable statement. The people of Israel
were never, at any time, a group of people who all held the same religious
belief: at best, there were always many apostates and idolaters among them;
and during much of their history, nearly the entire nation became apostates.
That is why God had to divorce them. Not because He loved them any less,
but to teach them that their false gods could not help them in a time of
trouble, nor deliver them from their enemies.
The great prophet Elijah found that in the whole nation of Israel
there remained only 7,000 men still loyal to God. But the Bible never says
that they ceased to be Israel, when it is denouncing them for their apostasy.
Israel always was purely a racial group, all of the same race,
despite the apostasy of some of them from the true religion. Therefore,
the only way anyone could become a "spiritual Israelite" would have to
be the same process by which he could become a "spiritual negro" or a "spiritual
mongolian" something no-one could ever do. You can be an Israelite only
by birth, by inheritance.
Many Judeo-Christian churches teach that the New Testament has
done away with all of this, that it threw all of God's promises and prophecies
about Israel into the trash can, even to the point of saying that all prophecy
has come to an end, and started a new religion with Israel left out of
it, their claims to the contrary notwithstanding.
This is positively and absolutely not true; the entire Bible is
consistent from beginning to end. There is as much Christianity in the
Old Testament as in the New; though it is harder to understand, because
it is presented in the forms of prophecy, ritual and symbols. We will now
proceed to show you that the New Testament, like the Old, is an Israel
The four Gospels, of Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John, deal with
the life and ministry of our Lord Jesus Christ. Jesus taught always the
truths pertaining to Israel. In Mark 12:28-29, a scribe asked Jesus which
was the greatest commandment of all; and we read,
"Jesus answered him, The first of all the commandments
is, Hear, O Israel, the Lord our God is one Lord."
Jesus regarded His whole ministry as being primarily to Israel; for
in Matthew 15:24, Jesus said
"I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the House of Israel."
Again, when Jesus sent out His 12 disciples to teach the people,
we read in Matthew 10:5-6,
"These 12 Jesus sent forth, and commanded them, saying, Go not
into the way of the Gentiles, and into any city of the Samaritans enter
ye not: but go rather to the lost sheep of the House of Israel."
Then again in Matthew 19:27-28, Peter asked Jesus what reward
would be given to those who had given up all to follow Him; and Jesus replied
"Verily I say unto you, That ye which have followed me, in the
regeneration when the Son of man shall sit on the throne of His glory,
ye also shall sit upon 12 thrones judging the 12 Tribes of Israel."
Christ does not say they will judge any other people or nation.
Note also that He didn't say that they would become heads of the Methodist,
Episcopal, Baptist, Church of Christ, etc., churches, but that they would
become rulers and judges over the 12 Tribes of Israel.
This is not something of the past, which God had to discard as
a failure; this is Jesus Christ's prophecy of what was so eternally true
that it would still be in effect in the day He comes back to rule the earth
in person. Also, many of the parables used by Christ concerned Israel.
So Christ testified, in the Gospels, that God had not changed His mind
concerning His people, Israel.
Surely, no other authority as great as that of Jesus Christ can
be found, to testify what is truly Christian. Yet there are many Judeo-Christian
Clergymen who teach falsely that the Apostle Paul changed all this, threw
out not only all of the Old Testament but also the teachings of Jesus Christ,
and set up a new religion.
Paul would be the last person in all the world to try such a thing!
Paul makes it very clear, in nearly every Epistle he wrote, that he is
writing TO and writing ABOUT Israel; although some of this has been hidden
by mis-translation. Let's review some of them.
First, let's take the Epistle to the Romans; so-called. To whom
does Paul address it? Chapter 1:7 shows that it is addressed To those persons
in Rome who are "called saints." Yes, we know that the King James Version
says, "called TO BE saints" but you will notice that the words "to be"
are in italic type, which shows that these two words were not in the original
writing, but that the translators added them, in order to make it correspond
with what the translators thought Paul should have said.
Israel in the New Testament -
But let's take Paul at his own word, what he actually did write,
instead of what somebody else substituted for it. Remember that Paul was
a very well educated man, who knew the Scriptures well. Paul knew that
a "saint" was not somebody who would be named as such by the church in
the dark ages, several centuries after Paul wrote, because the so-called
"saint" had done some deed of piety.
Do you know who ALL of the saints are? Paul knew; for he knew
the Psalms. In the first place, what does "saint" mean? It means "set apart
or consecrated to the service of God." It is used in the Bible almost exclusively
of people as members of a class, rather than as of individuals. It is used
to describe the status of God's people Israel.
Therefore, Psalm 148:14 tells us who ALL of God's saints are:
not just some of them, but ALL of them. It says,
"He also exalteth the horn of His people, the praise of ALL HIS
SAINTS, even of the Children of Israel, a people near unto Him."
Paul knew this, so when he addressed any of his epistle to "saints,"
you know that Paul was writing to Israelites. Thus we know that some, if
not all, of the Romans were Israelites also.
So in the Epistle to the Romans, as it is wrongly named in your
Bible (for Paul didn't call it that, but the translators did), in this
book Paul says he is writing
"To all that be in Rome, beloved of God, called saints."
Since ALL of the saints are Israelites according to the Bible,
which Paul knew very well, and we know that he was not writing to just
Romans in general. Nero, for example, was a Roman and a Jew; in fact, Nero
was emperor at the time Paul wrote this epistle; and we may be sure that
Paul never considered Nero a saint.
And these saints are also identified as "called." Paul knew whom
God had called, Isaiah 41:8-9 told it:
"But thou, Israel, art my servant; Jacob whom I have Chosen, the
seed of Abraham my friend. Thou whom I have taken from the ends of the
earth, and CALLED THEE from the chief men thereof, and said unto thee,
Thou art my servant; I HAVE CHOSEN THEE, and not cast thee away."
And Isaiah 51:2,
"Look unto Abraham your father, and unto Sarah that bore you;
for I CALLED HIM ALONE, and blessed him, and increased him."
Paul well knew that God had called and predestined His people
Israel to be the people who are consecrated to His service; which is just
what the word "saint" means. Therefore, in Romans 8:30, Paul says,
"Moreover, whom he did predestinate, them he also CALLED: and
whom he called, he also justified: and whom he justified, them he also
Similarly, Paul writes to the saints in various other cities.
1 Corinthians 1:2, 2 Corinthians 1:1, Ephesians 1:1, Philippians 1:1, Colossians
1:2, and 24-26 and Philemon verse 5, all these clearly state that Paul
was writing to those who are "the saints" in those various cities. Paul
knew that the saints, the Israelites, were the people to whom God's message
was addressed, the people in whom it must take root, that they should be
called to His service as God had declared form the beginning. Therefore,
it was to them that Paul wrote, and not to the "Gentiles" in general.
We have seen that Jesus Christ strongly emphasized that He had
come only to His own people, Israel, and sent out His disciples with the
"Go not into the way of the Gentiles, and into any city of Samaritans
enter ye not; but go rather to the lost sheep of the House of Israel."
Also, He promised His disciples that they would sit upon 12 thrones,
judging the 12 Tribes of Israel; not various religious denominations. Then
we started to study what Paul wrote on this subject, for most people have
been taught by their Judeo-Christian churches that Paul started a new religion
with Israel left out of it. On the contrary, as we shall see, Paul still
taught good Israel doctrine.
We saw that in his Epistle to the Romans; which most people think
was a message to Gentiles, Paul was writing only to those particular people
in Rome who were "saints," and that, as Paul knew very well, the 148th
Psalm, verse 14, tells us that ALL of the saints are the children of Israel.
Therefore Paul understood, what most Judeo-Christian Christians
don't know, that he was writing to the Israelite colony in Rome. And we
saw that the same thing was true of Paul's Epistles to various other cities.
Now let's examine the Epistle to the Romans still more closely;
for Romans is generally regarded as supremely the book written to the Gentiles.
It might surprise you to know that here is no such word as "Gentiles" in
the bible, in its original languages.
Oh yes, you can find it in your King James Version of the Bible,
also in the less accurate of the modern English translations. But it was
never in the original languages and has been put in by the translators;
just as the word Jew has been substituted for Judean.
Neither Hebrew or Greek has such a word as "Gentile," nor any
word which is equivalent to it. The word "Gentile" comes from the Latin
word "gentiles," which means "one who is not a Roman citizen."
If you were to use the word accurately, you would have to say
that Jesus Christ and all of His Disciples were Gentiles; for none of them
were Roman citizens; Paul was the only one of the Apostles who was not
a Gentile, for Paul was a Roman citizen. But what does the Bible say in
the original languages in which it was written?
In the Old Testament, which was written in Hebrew, wherever you
see the word "Gentile" in your English Bible, the Hebrew used the word
"goy" if it was in the singular, or the plural form of it, "goyim."
This word means precisely "Nation," and nothing else. You remember
that God told Abraham "I will make nations of thee" (Genesis 17:6); in
the Hebrew, God said "I will make goyim of thee."
It would have been too utterly silly to translate this "I will
make gentiles of your descendants," so the translators here translated
it correctly as "nations." Again, you remember that when the twins, Jacob
and Esau were still in the womb of Rebekah, their mother, they struggled
together; and she prayed to God to tell her why this was so, and God answered
her, "Two nations are in thy womb."
Israel in the New Testament -
In the Hebrew original, this says, "Two goyim are in thy womb."
Certainly God never told her that "two gentiles are in thy womb;" so the
translators here had to translate it correctly, "nations." But this is
exactly the same word which they translate "gentiles" in many other places.
The New Testament which most of you have was translated from manuscripts
written in the Greek language. Whenever in your New Testament you see the
word "gentile," the word in the Greek was "ethnos." "Ethnos" means "nation,"
just as the Hebrew word "goy" does.
In many places, it would have been silly to translate it "gentile,"
so the translators had to use the correct word, "nation."
For example, in the 7th chapter of Luke, we read that a certain
Roman officer, a centurion, had a servant who was dying; and the centurion
asked some elders of the Jews to intercede for him with Jesus, and ask
Jesus to heal his servant; and the Jews did urge Jesus to do this for the
centurion, saying "that he was worthy for whom He should do this; for he
loveth our ethnos, and he hath built us a synagogue."
Surely no Jew would have praised the centurion for loving the
gentiles; nor would he have built a synagogue for gentiles; so they had
to translate this one correctly as "nation," not "gentile."
But everywhere you see the word "gentile" in the New Testament,
it is the same word "ethnos" in the Greek. This word "ethnos" has no pagan,
or non-Israel, nor even non-Greek. This word "ethnos" has no pagan, or
non-Israel, nor even non-Greek connotation.
The Greeks distinguished between Greeks and Barbarians, which
all educated men like Paul knew; so he said in Romans 1:14
"I am debtor both to the Greeks and to the Barbarians."
Just remember that Paul never once wrote "gentile" in all his
writings; he only wrote "ethnos," which means "Nation."
Therefore, do not be misled by bad translation where you read
in Romans 1:13,
"that I might have some fruit among you also, even as among other
for Paul actually wrote "even as among other nations."
Paul had made converts who lived among other nations, both in
Greece and in Syria and in Asia Minor. You must carefully judge from the
general context in which the term occurs, whether the particular nation
of which he speaks is an Israel nation or a non-Israel nation. If it is
a non-Israel nation, then the common term "gentile" may as well be used;
even though inaccurately, because we are accustomed to it.
For further proof that Paul was not writing to gentiles in the
Epistle to the so-called Romans, note how Paul tells these "saints" in
Rome to whom he writes, in the 4th chapter of Romans, that "Abraham is
our father, as pertaining to the flesh," and "Abraham, who is the father
of us all." Certainly he could not have told any "gentile" that Abraham
was his father, as pertaining to the flesh.
Again, this is consistent with what Paul wrote to the "Saints"
in the city of Corinth: for in 1 Corinthians 10:1-4, he writes,
"Moreover, brethren, I would not that ye should be ignorant, now
that ALL OUR FATHERS were under the cloud, and ALL passed through the sea;
and were ALL baptized unto Moses in the cloud and the sea; and did ALL
eat the same spiritual meat; and did ALL drink the same spiritual drink;
for they drank of that spiritual Rock which followed them: and that Rock
Paul could not have truthfully told "gentiles" that their fathers,
like his, had all passed through the Red Sea with Moses, and had all been
protected by the pillar of cloud by day and of fire by night, and had all
eaten the manna and had all drunk of the water which poured out of the
rock in answer to Moses' prayer. Only to ISRAELITES could he have said
this with the slightest spark of truth.
Not even the prophets of the Old Testament were more firmly convinced
of the great and continuing destiny of Israel than was Paul. You have been
taught in your Judeo-Christian churches that Paul threw all this into the
trash can and started a new religion without Israel in it.
Where they get that idea is beyond imagination. Listen to Paul
from the Epistle to the Romans, and see if you can find anything here to
show that Paul thought that Israel was all through: In Romans 9:4-5 Paul
speaks of the
"Israelites: to whom pertain the adoption, and the glory, and
the covenants, and the giving of the law, and the service of God, and the
promises; whose are the fathers; and of whom, as concerning the flesh,
You have been taught that gentiles are "adopted" as the children
of God; but did you notice that Paul says that it is the "Israelites to
whom pertain the adoption?"
How could Paul make it any more clear than this, which is in Romans
"I say then, hath God cast away His people? God forbid! For I
also am an Israelite, of the seed of Abraham, of the Tribe of Benjamin.
God hath not cast away His people which He foreknew."
Remember what he says about those whom God foreknew? "For whom
he did foreknow, he also did predestinate to be conformed to the image
of His Son...Moreover, whom He did predestinate, them he also called: and
whom he called, them he also justified: and whom he justified, them he
also glorified." Since God's People Israel are those whom He foreknew,
then this is written about them.
So we can see clearly that in the New Testament, the writings
of Paul very clearly constitute Israel books, just as much so as the Old
Testament. But what of the other books in the New Testament, which were
not written by Paul? Are they also Israel books?
As we have said before, there is as much Christianity in the Old
Testament as in the New; although it is harder to understand, because in
the Old Testament it is presented mostly in symbolic form, largely in the
But God is always consistent with His own truth; so it is also
true that the New Testament proclaims God's eternal unchanging love for
His own people Israel.
We have shown that Christ strongly emphasized that He was sent
only to the lost sheep of the House of Israel; and that in His parables,
He taught the truth of Israel's continued place in God's plan.
Israel in the New Testament -
Part 4 (Last One)
Then we examined the various Epistles of Paul; and we saw that
he wrote to "the saints," and we know from Psalm 148:14 that ALL of God's
saints are His people Israel. And we saw that in the Epistle to the Romans,
Paul reminded these "saints" to whom he wrote that Abraham was their father,
as pertaining to the flesh; no changing of gentiles into "spiritual Israel"
here, for Paul said Abraham was their father "as pertaining to the flesh."
Similarly, Paul reminded "the saints" at Corinth that their fathers,
like his, passed through the Red Sea with Moses and ate the manna and drank
of the water which poured out of the rock in answer to Moses' prayer; something
that couldn't be said of "gentiles."
Now let's look at the writings of other Apostles in the New Testament.
What about James? James addresses his Epistle
"to the twelve Tribes scattered abroad."
THIS COULD NOT BE TO THE JEWS, for they were not of any of the
Tribes of Israel, and also they were not "scattered abroad" when James
wrote, nor for ten years thereafter; they were still collected together
It could not even be the people of the Kingdom of Judah, for they
were never more than the 3 Tribes of Judah, Benjamin and Levi, and James
is speaking to "the TWELVE Tribes scattered abroad."
But we know that the Assyrians took into captivity first all the
people of the ten northern tribes who made up the Kingdom of Israel; then
the Assyrians under King Sennacherib invaded the Southern Kingdom of Judah
and deported 200,150 of its people in the same captivity with the ten tribes;
and finally, we know from historical sources that, upon the fall of Babylon,
the Tribes of Israel, by that time known as "Scythians," swooped down on
Babylon and carried off most of the people of Judah, Benjamin and Levi
who were captives at Babylon, leaving behind just the relatively few who
returned in 60 A.D., the Twelve Tribes were scattered abroad, by that time
known as the Angli, the Saxones, the Ostrogoths, the Visigoths, and the
Royal Scyths, already moving on their long march into their predestined
homes in Europe and later in America. It was to them that James was writing.
And what about Peter? The First Epistle of Peter leaves no doubt
that he was writing to Israelites. The first verse is badly mistranslated.
Instead of "the strangers scattered throughout Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia,
Asia and Bithynia," as your King James Version reads, the actual working
in the Greek is
"to THE EXILES OF THE DISPERSION in Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia,
Asia and Bithynia."
Pontus, Galatia and Cappadocia are the eastern part of modern
Turkey, and we know that the Scythian tribes of Israel did occupy this
region before they moved out on their long journey into Europe. They were
exiles from their original homeland in Palestine; they were dispersed over
a wide region. Finally, to clinch the matter, Peter identified them in
the second verse as "Elect, according to the foreknowledge of God, the
But who were "God's elect?" In Isaiah 45:4, God speaks of "Israel
mine elect." And as to the foreknowledge of God, remember that in Romans
11:2 Paul confirms that "God hath not cast away his people which he FOREKNEW."
"Elect" is but another word for "Chosen;" and in Deuteronomy 7:6
the people of Israel are told that "The Lord thy God HATH CHOSEN THEE to
be a special people unto himself above all the people that are upon the
face of the earth."
Now, let's look a little further into what Peter has to say. In
1 Peter 2:9 he says to these "exiles" of the dispersion in Pontus, Galatis,
"But ye are a CHOSEN RACE, A ROYAL PRIESTHOOD, AN HOLY NATION,
A PECULIAR PEOPLE: THAT YE SHOULD SHOW FORTH THE PRAISE OF HIM who called
you out of darkness into his marvelous light."
Oh, yes, we know that the King James Version of the Bible says
"a chosen generation;" but that is a mistranslation, for the word in the
Greek is "genos" meaning a race, not a generation.
This couldn't describe anyone but Israel. The CHOSEN RACE is Israel;
among many other places, we find it in Isaiah 44:1,
"Yet now hear, O Jacob my servant; and Israel WHOM I HAVE CHOSEN."
and Deuteronomy 7:6
"The Lord thy God hath CHOSEN thee to be a special people unto
himself above all the people that are upon the face of the earth."
Next, "a royal priesthood, an holy nation;" this also can only
be Israel, for Exodus 19:6 tells the people of Israel that
"Ye shall be unto me a kingdom of priest and an holy nation."
"A peculiar people" is another identifying mark of Israel, for
Deuteronomy 14:2 says,
"For thou art an holy people unto the Lord thy God, and the Lord
hath CHOSEN thee to be A PECULIAR PEOPLE unto himself, above all the nations
that are upon the earth."
And finally, "that ye should show forth the praise of him WHO
CALLED YOU OUT OF DARKNESS into his marvelous light" is another identifying
mark of Israel; for in Isaiah 43:21, God says,
"This people have I formed for myself; THEY SHALL SHOW FORTH MY
We skipped over the Epistle to the Hebrews, which is not signed,
but is usually credited to Paul. We can't imagine anyone disputing that
this book, as indicated in its title, is written TO, as well as written
about, the Hebrews, the Israelites. Probably we need not say more abut
it here; and we were to start in on that book, it alone would take several
pages to cover.
What of the little-understood Book of Revelation? It is too clear
for any possible doubt that this book is written in symbols, and is not
to be taken literally, but you must understand the symbols used in order
to know the great realities for which they stand. These symbols are, in
general, Israel symbols: Hence, it can be understood only by those who
can recognize the Israel basis of the symbols. God's Righteous Remnant.
This, also, is a book about which whole volumes have been written; and
it is too long for us to take up as jut a subdivision of our present theme
of Israel in the New Testament.
But we have covered enough to show that the New Testament and
the Old Testament are just the two sides of the same coin; which has the
same value, whichever side you look at.
If this were not so, we could not have confidence in either one
of them; for truth must always be consistent with itself. Jesus Christ
came not to take back God's promises and nullify the prophecies, but rather,
as Paul said in Romans 15:8,
"Now I say that Jesus Christ was a minister of the circumcision,
for the truth of God, to CONFIRM the promises made unto the falters."
All that had been promised to Abraham and Moses was to be made
good. And likewise, these promises to Abraham and Moses included the basis
for Christianity. In fact, Moses was a Christian!
Does that startle you, when you remember that Moses died more
than 1400 years before Christ was born? Yet the New Testament tells us
that Moses was a Christian. In Hebrews 11:24-26, it says,
"By faith, Moses, when he was come to years, refused to be called
the son of Pharaoh's daughter; choosing rather to suffer affliction with
the people of God than to enjoy the pleasures of sin for a season: ESTEEMING
THE REPROACH OF CHRIST greater riches than the treasure of Egypt; for he
had respect unto the recompense of the reward."
Now it is certain that he could not have "esteemed the reproach
of Christ greater riches than the treasures of Egypt" unless he truly understood
what all the rituals he taught the people really meant; that they spoke
of the coming Redeemer. So it is that Hebrews 10:1 speaks of "the law having
a shadow of the good things to come," and the Book of Hebrews explains
how the rituals were only symbols of the coming of Christ and His sacrifice
Therefore, never let anyone tell you that the two halves of the
Bible are inconsistent, and that to accept one you must reject the other.
No the Bible is all one book; it tells of God's putting His sons and daughters
on earth as His Chosen People, Israel, and the great destiny He set for
them; it tells of His foreknowledge of their imperfections and sins, and
His provision from before the foundation of the world of the redeemer who
would save His people. Both Old and New Testaments are Christian books,
and both of them are Israel books.