Almah, Strong’s # 5929, virgin, maid, or damsel?


This word occurs 7 times in Scripture, translated as “virgin” or “virgins” four times, “maid” twice, and “damsels” once.


We submit that the original Word of God is not so sloppy, and that it was merely biased translators who took liberties which made the Word of God appear to be so.


The contexts of the four times it’s translated as “virgin” suggest that “almah” should have been translated as “maid” or “damsel” simply to be consistent with other translations:


Gen 24:43  Behold, I stand by the well of water; and it shall come to pass, that when the virgin cometh forth to draw water, and I say to her, Give me, I pray thee, a little water of thy pitcher to drink;


Isa 7:14  Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.


Son 1:3  Because of the savour of thy good ointments thy name is as ointment poured forth, therefore do the virgins love thee.


Son 6:8  There are threescore queens, and fourscore concubines, and virgins without number.


It would appear that the sole objective of the translators, et. al. was to make it appear to us that Isaiah 7:14 was a prophecy regarding Jesus, and thus to MISLEAD us about some serious aspects of the conception or birth of Jesus:





Total KJV Occurrences: 7

maid, 2

Exo_2:8, Pro_30:19

virgin, 2

Gen_24:43, Isa_7:14

virgins, 2

Son_1:3, Son_6:8

damsels, 1



If Isaiah had intended to mean “virgin” in this verse, shouldn’t he have used the Hebrew word “bethulah”, Strong’s # 1330, which even the KJV translated as “virgin” 38 times?:






Total KJV Occurrences: 50

virgin, 24

Gen_24:16, Lev_21:3, Lev_21:14, Deu_22:19, Deu_22:23, Deu_22:28, Deu_32:25, 2Sa_13:2, 1Ki_1:2, 2Ki_19:21, Isa_23:12, Isa_37:22, Isa_47:1, Isa_62:5, Jer_14:17, Jer_18:13, Jer_31:4, Jer_31:13, Jer_31:21, Jer_46:11, Lam_1:15, Lam_2:13, Joe_1:8, Amo_5:2

virgins, 14

Exo_22:17, Jdg_21:12, 2Sa_13:18, Est_2:2-3 (2), Est_2:17, Est_2:19, Psa_45:14, Lam_1:4 (2), Lam_1:18, Lam_2:10, Lam_2:21, Amo_8:13

maid, 4

Exo_22:16, Job_31:1, Jer_2:32, Jer_51:22

maidens, 3

Psa_78:63, Psa_148:12, Eze_44:22

maids, 3

Lam_5:11, Eze_9:6, Zec_9:17

maiden, 2

Jdg_19:24, 2Ch_36:17



In keeping with the quixotic nature of the KJV translators, though, they insisted on translating this word into two different, contradictory meanings as well, requiring us to examine the context to determine WHICH is the correct translation.  It’s very clear from the context of the following verse that the original meaning was “virgin”, and that the KJV translators arbitrarily decided it must mean only “maid”


Exo 22:16  And if a man entice a maid that is not betrothed, and lie with her, he shall surely endow her to be his wife.


Yet, as if to further confuse the issue, the following verse provides no evidence that Rebekah was a virgin, so if the KJV translators believed that “bethulah” meant merely “maid” in the above verse, then why would they translate it as “virgin” here?


Gen 24:16  And the damsel was very fair to look upon, a virgin, neither had any man known her: and she went down to the well, and filled her pitcher, and came up.


Clearly there’s an agenda being exposed here. 


We submit that “almah” always means “maid” and, that “bethulah” always means “virgin”, and that the translators mistranslated both words just so they could claim that Isaiah 7:14 is prophecy concerning Jesus. Whether or not Jesus was born of a virgin birth is not the issue here.  Whether or not His birth was prophesied by Isaiah is also not the issue.  At issue is the role played by jews [the ones who supposedly had a hand in “translating” the Masoretic jew texts which the KJV was allegedly translated from] in ALTERING the Word of God.


The most important statements ever made by Jesus, the RED LETTER TEXT of the Holy Bible, statements that NOBODY can ignore, were His COMMANDMENT to His TWELVE Disciples, and His mission statement:


Mat 10:5  These twelve Jesus sent forth, and commanded them, saying, Go not into the way of the Gentiles, and into any city of the Samaritans enter ye not:


Mat 10:6  But go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Israel.


Mat 15:24  But he answered and said, I am sent ONLY unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel.


Why were there TWELVE Disciples?  Because there were TWELVE Tribes of the House of ISRAEL!  Who did this EXCLUDE?  The House of Judah, for one.  WHAT was the House of Judah?  It was the ONE tribe, the Tribe of Judah.  Why was it so important for Paul to stress that he was of the Tribe of Benjamin?  BECAUSE THE TRIBE OF BENJAMIN WAS OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL, TO WHOM JESUS COMMANDED HIS DISCIPLES TO GO only TO.


Who would have a vested interest in removing the Tribes of Dan and Ephraim from Revelations to make it appear that there were only 10 tribes of the House of Israel, and that the House of Judah was made up of the two tribes Judah and Benjamin, thus including Judah as one of the twelve tribes addressed by Jesus?  Who would have a vested interest in obscuring what Jesus meant by the above two RACIAL statements by making it appear that his genealogy is irrelevant [and thus that He was born of a virgin birth]?  Who is reputed to have had a hand in translating ISRAELITE Scripture?  Who did Jesus say were those who say they are jews, but are not?  Who calls we Israelites “anti-semites”, “racists”, “misogynists”, and “LIARS” simply for quoting Scripture which proves that the Tribe of Benjamin was of the House of Israel, and never left, and that Joseph never lost its status as a Tribe of the House of Israel?  Who would proclaim from the rooftops that the following verse proves that the Tribe of Benjamin was of the House of Judah, and not of the House of Israel?


1 Kings 12:21  And when Rehoboam was come to Jerusalem, he assembled all the house of Judah, with the tribe of Benjamin, an hundred and fourscore thousand chosen men, which were warriors, to fight against the house of Israel, to bring the kingdom again to Rehoboam the son of Solomon.